2016-11-01

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NO.1 You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. Your project has several risks that will affect
several stakeholder requirements. Which project management plan will define who will be available
to share information on the project risks?
A. Communications Management Plan
B. Stakeholder management strategy
C. Risk Management Plan
D. Resource Management Plan
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The Communications Management Plan defines, in regard to risk management, who will be available
to share information on risks and responses throughout the project. The Communications
Management Plan aims to define the communication necessities for the project and how the
information will be circulated. The Communications Management Plan sets
the communication structure for the project. This structure provides guidance forcommunication
throughout the project's life and is updated as communication needs change. The Communication
Managements Plan identifies and defines the roles of persons concerned with the project. It
includes a matrix known as the communication matrix to map the communication requirements of
the project.
Answer C is incorrect. The stakeholder management strategy does not address risk
communications.
Answer B is incorrect. The Risk Management Plan defines risk identification, analysis, response,
and monitoring.
Answer A is incorrect. The Resource Management Plan does not define risk communications.

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2016-11-01

C9530-404 study guide C2090-620 Exam Cram C9530-404 Test Questions

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NO.1 A solution developer is defining a DFDL model for a file that defines a purchase order. A field in
the header, ItemCount, defines the number of purchase order items contained in the purchase order.
The schema model is defined as shown below.
What modification must the developer make to the model to ensure that the number of items in the
purchase order is equal to the value in ItemCount?
A. Add a variable instance to thesequenceelement that counts the number ofItemsrecords.
B. Add an Assert toItemsthat tests that items is less than or equal toItemCount.
C. Set theOccursCountKindproperty toImplicit.
D. Set theOccursCountKindproperty forItemstoExpressionand set the expression
to{../Header/ItemCount}.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A solution developer needs to create a broker archive to deploy an application on an
integration server. During this process, the solution developer can add a flow as a .mgsflow or .cmf
file. The solution developer decides to use .mgsflow.
Which node is allowed in the flow?
A. A user-defined node that is created from a subflow.
B. A subflow node that represents a subflow that is defined in a.msgflowfile.
C. A user-defined node that is created from a Java implementation.
D. A WebSphere Message Broker Version 7.0 Mapping node.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Message flows that contain user-defined nodes that are created from subflows must be included in
broker archive files as compiled message flow (.cmf) files.
Reference:https://www01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSMKHH_9.0.0/com.ibm.etools.mft.d
oc/bs68460_.htm

Exam Code: C9530-404
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Exam Code: C2090-620
Exam Name: IBM Cognos 10 BI Author
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2016-11-01

FC0-U51 exam simulations FC0-U51 test answers CompTIA IT Fundamentals

NO.1 Which of the following security threats includes suspicious activity, such as reviewing

someone's screen display without permission?
A. Phishing
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Malware
D. Password cracking
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following components provides the FASTEST medium for hosting and storing an
operating system?
A. DVD-RW
B. Blu-Ray disc
C. 7200RPM HDD
D. SSD
Answer: D

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2016-11-01

VMCE_V9 Practice Test VEEAM Certified Engineer (VMCE9) VMCE_V9 braindump

NO.1 How can a Backup Administrator configure user permissions and restrict those permissions to

tasks such as Guest OS file restores or search for Guest OS files?
A. Use Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager roles
B. Install the Veeam Backup ReplicationRemote Console on a workstation
C. Create a Business View categoryin Veeam ONE
D. Create an Active Directory Universal Group
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following actions can be performed to finalize Instant VM Recover/? (Choose the 2
appropriate options)
A. Permanent failover
B. Fallback
C. FileCopy
D. VMware Storage vMotion
E. Quick Migration
Answer: D,E

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2016-09-18

Monitoring and Operating a Private Cloud with System Center 2012 070-246 Practice Test 70-483 Exam Cram

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NO.1 Your company has a private cloud that contains a Microsoft ASP.NET application.
The application is hosted by Internet Information Services (IIS) on a server named Server1.
The application is accessed by using multiple URLs.
You configure a watcher node on a server named Server2.
You need to ensure that an alert is generated each time the watcher node receives an
HTTP error of 400 or more.
The solution must ensure that the cause of the alert is captured.
Which type of monitor should you create from the Operations Manager console?
A. TCP Port
B. Process
C. Windows Service
D. Web Application Transaction Monitoring
Answer: D

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NO.2 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a
domain controller named DC1 and a member server named Server1.
You have a server named Server2 that is a member of a workgroup. All servers run Windows Server
2012 R2.
Server1 has System Center 2012 R2 Operations Manager installed. DC1 is configured as an enterprise
certification authority (CA). Server1 and DC1 are located on the internal network. Server2 is located
on a perimeter network.
You need to monitor Server2 by using Operations Manager.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Request and install a certificate on Server1, and then import the certificate to Server2.
B. Run the Discovery Wizard on Server1.
C. Open port UDP 161 and UDP 162 on the firewall between the internal network and the perimeter
network.
D. Request and install a certificate on Server2, and then import the certificate to Server1.
E. Manually install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent on Server2.
F. Open port TCP 5723 on the firewall between the internal network and the perimeter network.
Answer: D,E,F

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2016-09-18

Delta - HP Unified Functional Testing 12.x Software HP0-M101 Practice Questions HP2-N52 PDF VCE

NO.1 What is one recommended way to start and stop the HP ALM services on the server on a
Windows platform?
A. Log on to the ALM Site Administration click the Servers tab. and se.ect Start Application Lifecycle
Management or Stop Application Lifecycle Management.
B. Log on to me application server JMX console. Look for typeServer under the appserver.system
domain, and invoke the start or the shutdown operation.
C. Execute the run script or the shutdown script from the bin directory inside the main application
server directory.
D. In me system tray, right-click the ALM icon, and select Start Application Lifecycle Management or
Stop Application Lifecycle Management.
Answer: C

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NO.2 How does the HP ALM Synchronizer operate?
A. Through cron jobs doing command line calls to the backend
B. Through data mapping that occurs directly between databases
C. Through scheduled API calls
D. Through synchronization links that are established between end-points
Answer: D

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2016-08-12

C9020-461 Training Materials, M2090-740 VCE Dumps

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Exam Code: M2090-740
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Test information:
Number of questions: 64
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 59%
Languages: English, Chinese Simplified, French, Japanese, Korean

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Specialist - Midrange Storage Technical Support V4